(43:12) I think I have thus sufficiently answered these questions - namely,
if a true idea is distinguished from a false idea, only in so far as
it is said to agree with its object, a true idea has no more reality or
perfection than a false idea (since the two are only distinguished by an
extrinsic mark); consequently, neither will a man who has true ideas have
any advantage over him who has only false ideas. (13) Further, how comes
it that men have false ideas? (43:14) Lastly, how can anyone be sure, that
he has ideas which agree with their objects? (15) These questions, I
repeat, I have, in my opinion, sufficiently answered. (16) The difference
between a true idea and a false idea is plain: from what was said in
[xxxv] , the former is related to the latter as being is to not-being.
(43:17) The causes of falsity I have set forth very clearly in [xix] and
[xxxv] with the note. (18) From what is there stated, the difference
between a man who has true ideas, and a man who has only false ideas, is
made apparent. (19) As for the last question - as to how a man can be sure
that he has ideas that agree with their objects, I have just pointed out,
with abundant clearness, that his knowledge arises from the simple fact,
that he has an idea which corresponds with its object - in other words,
that truth is its own standard. (43:20) We may add that our mind, in so
far as it perceives things truly, is part of the infinite intellect of God
([xi] Coroll.
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